GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY
(a) Hard lenses
(b) Soft lenses
(c) Gas-permeable lenses
102. All of the following desensitizing agents are recommended for sensitive teeth except
(a) 10% carbamide peroxide
(b) 5% potassium nitrate
(c) Dibasic sodium citrate
(d) 10% strontium chloride hexahydrate
103. Carbamide peroxide appears to soften earwax by
(a) Causing oxygen to be released, which loosens the wax
(b) Stimulating fluid secretion in the ear canal
(c) Actually dissolving the ear wax
(d) Decreasing lipid content of the wax
(e) None of the above
104. A common oral problem caused by herpes simplex type I virus (HSV-1) is
(a) Aphthous ulcers
(b) Canker sores
(c) Aphthous stomatitis
(d) Fever blisters
(e) Thrush
105. The definition of a surfactant (an ingredient in toothpaste) can best be described by which of the following statements? Surfactant
(a) Prevents drying of the preparation
(b) Removes debris by its detergent action and causes foaming, which is usually desired by the patient
(c) Physically removes plaque and debris
(d) Determines the texture, dispersiveness, and appearance of the product
(e) Adds flavor to the preparation which makes it more appealing to the patient
106. Which is not a risk factor for hyperphosphatemia and death from sodium phosphate enemas when used in children?
(a) Renal insufficiency
(b) Hirschsprung’s disease
(c) Anorectal malformations
(d) Children between the ages of 6 and 12 years
107. Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of noncompliance in the elderly?
(a) Polypharmacy
(b) Hypertension
(c) Male gender
(d) Living with a spouse in an isolated environment
(e) Expensive medications
108. The principal difference between competitive and non-competitive inhibition is
(a) Extent of receptor site blocking
(b) Whether inhibition occurs
(c) Extent of enzyme inhibition
(d) Degree of agonism
(e) None of the above
109. Drug administrated through which of the following routes is mot likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism:
(a) Oral
(b) Sublingual
(c) Subcutaneous
(d) Rectal
110. Many receptors use distinct hetero _________ GTPä-binding regulatory proteins
(a) Tetrameric
(b) Trimeric
(c) Dimeric
(d) Monomeric
111. Alkalinization of urine hastens the excretion of
(a) Weakly basic drugs
(b) Weakly acidic drugs
(c) Strong electrolytes
(d) Nonpolar drugs
112. Majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by
(a) Weakly basic drugs
(b) Weakly acidic drugs
(c) Strong electrolytes
(d) Nonpolar drugs
113. The most important factor which governs diffusion of drugs across capillaries other than those in the brain is
(a) Blood flow through the capillary
(b) Lipid solubility of the drug
(c) pKa value of the drug
(d) pH of the medium
114. Active transport of a substance across biological membrane has the following characteristics except
(a) It is specific
(b) It is pH dependent
(c) It is saturable
(d) It requires metabolic energy
115. Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug
(a) Is freely water soluble
(b) Is completely absorbed
(c) Is incompletely absorbed
(d) Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
116. Bioavailability of drug refers to
(a) Percentages of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form
(b) Ratio of oral to parental dose
(c) Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the farces
(d) Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites
117. The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is
(a) Molecular weight of the drug
(b) Site of application
(c) Lipid solubility of the drug
(d) Nature of the base used in the formulation
118. Redistribution is a feature of
(a) Highly plasma protein bound drugs
(b) Depot preparations
(c) Poorly lipid soluble drugs
(d) Highly lipid soluble drugs
119. Weakly acidic drugs
(a) Are bound primarily to a1 acid glycoprotein in plasma
(b) Are excreted faster in alkaline urine
(c) Are highly ionized in the gastric juice
(d) Do not cross blood—brain barrier
120. High plasma protein binding
(a) Increases the volume of distribution of the drug
(b) Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
(c) Minimizes drug interactions
(d) Generally makes the drug long acting
121. Biotransformation of drugs is primarily directed to
(a) Activate the drug
(b) Inactivate the drug
(c) Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites
(d) Convert nonlipid soluble drugs into lipid soluble metabolites
122. A prodrug is
(a) The prototype member of a class of drugs
(b) The oldest member of a class of drugs
(c) An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite
(d) A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation
123. Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of a large number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions:
(a) CYP 3A4
(b) CYP 2C9
(c) CYP 2E1
(d) CYP 1A2
124. The most commonly occurring conjugation reaction for drugs and their metabolites is
(a) Glucuronidation
(b) Acetylation
(c) Methylation
(d) Glutathione conjugation
125. G-protein coupled receptors span the plasma membrane as a bundle of _____ alpha helices
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Seven
(d) Ten
126. Which of the following drug metabolizing reactions is entirely nonmicrosomal
(a) Glucuronide conjugation
(b) Acetylation
(c) Oxidation
(d) Reduction
127. Induction of drug metabolizing enzymes involves
(a) A conformational change in the enzyme protein to favor binding of substrate molecules
(b) Expression of enzyme molecules on the surface of hepatocytes
(c) Enhanced transport of substrate molecules into hepatocytes
(d) Increased synthesis of enzyme protein
128. Drugs which undergo high degree of firstpass metabolism in liver
(a) Have oral bioavailability
(b) Are excreted primarily in bile
(c) Are contraindicated in liver disease
(d) Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination
129. Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its
(a) Lipid solubility
(b) Plasma protein binding
(c) Degree of ionization
(d) Rate of tubular secretion
130. If a drug undergoes net tubular secretion, its renal clearance will be
(a) More than the glomerular filtration rate
(b) Equal to the glomerular filtration rate
(c) Less than the glomerular filtration rate
(d) Equal to the rate of urine formation
131. Which of the following is not a primary/ fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter
(a) Bio-availability
(b) Volume of distribution
(c) Clearance
(d) Plasma half life
132. If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics
(a) A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time
(b) Its clearance value will remain constant
(c) Its elimination half-life will increase with dose
(d) It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 x half-life period
133. If a drug has a constant bio-availability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its
(a) Volume of distribution
(b) Plasma protein binding
(c) Lipid solubility
(d) Total body clearance
134. The following dose of a drug is governed by its
(a) Aqueous diffusion
(b) Aqueous hydrolysis
(c) Lipid diffusion
(d) Pinocytosis or endocytosis
135. Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using
(a) Antihypertensive drugs
(b) Levodopa
(c) Lithium carbonate
(d) MAO inhibitors
136. Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features
(a) Takes about one week to develop
(b) Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate
(c) It is irreversible
(d) Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings
137. Which of the following is a competitive type of enzyme inhibitor
(a) Acetazolamide
(b) Disulfiram
(c) Physostigmine
(d) Theophylline
138. What is true in relation to drug receptors
(a) All drugs act through specific receptors
(b) All drug receptors are located on the surface of the target cells
(c) Agonists induce a conformational change in the receptor
(d) Partial agonists have low affinity for the receptor
139. A partial agonist can antagonize the effects of a full agonist because it has
(a) High affinity but low intrinsic activity
(b) Low affinity but high intrinsic activity
(c) No affinity and low intrinsic activity
(d) High affinity but no intrinsic activity
140. Receptor agonists possess
(a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Result in decreased enzymes in the soluble cytoplasmic fraction
(d) Require 3–4 months to reach completion
141. Agonists affect the receptor molecule in the following manner
(a) Alter its amino acid sequence
(b) Denature the receptor protein
(c) Alter its folding or alignment of subunits
(d) Induce covalent bond formation
142. Receptors perform the following function/ functions
(a) Ligand recognition
(b) Signal transduction
(c) Both ligand recognition and signal transduction
(d) Disposal of agonists and antagonists
143. Which of the following receptor types has 7 helical membrane, spanning amino acid segments with 3 extracellular and 3 intracellular loops
(a) Tyrosine protein kinase receptor
(b) Gene expression regulating receptor
(c) Intrinsic ion channel containing receptor
(d) G protein coupled receptor
144. Which of the following is a G protein coupled receptor
(a) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor
(b) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor
(c) Glucocorticoid receptor
(d) Insulin receptor
145. Placebo effects result presumably from the
(a) Physician-patient relationship
(b) Mental set up imparted by the therapeutic settings
(c) Mental set up imparted by the physician
(d) All of the above
146. A l l of the following subservice as intracellular second messengers in receptor mediated signal transduction except
(a) Cyclic AMP
(b) Inositol trisphosphate
(c) Diacyl glycerol
(d) G protein
147. A receptor which itself has enzymatic property is
(a) Insulin receptor
(b) Progesterone receptor
(c) Thyroxine receptor
(d) Glucagon receptor
148. Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of
(a) Continuous use of agonists
(b) Continuous use of antagonists
(c) Chronic use of CNS depressants
(d) Denervation
149. When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit
(a) Ceiling effect
(b) Desensitization
(c) Therapeutic window phenomenon
(d) Nonreceptor mediated action
150. ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to
(a) The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial
(b) The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug
(c) The therapeutic dose range of the drug
(d) The therapeutic index of the drug
ANSWERS
101. b
102. a
103. a
104. d
105. b
106. d
107. a
108. c
109. a
110. b
111. b
112. a
113. a
114. b
115. c
116. a
117. c
118. d
119. b
120. d
121. c
122. c
123. a
124. a
125. c
126. b
127. d
128. a
129. b
130. a
131. d
132. b
133. d
134. c
135. c
136. b
137. c
138. c
139. a
140. c
141. c
142. c
143. d
144. a
145. d
146. d
147. a
148. a
149. c
150. b
110. b Many receptors use heterotrimeric GTP-binding regulatory proteins. The subunits are designated as β, α and α and their classification is based on á subunits.
125. c G-protein coupled receptors are hydrophobic proteins and span the plasma membrane in seven á-helical segments.
145. d Placebo effect is a desired response to a therapy without drug. Placebo effect is mainly because of various psychological reasons e.g. physicianpatient relationship, mental set up affected by surroundings and positive mental set up because of known and trusted physician.
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