GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY
51. The route of drug administration that gives the most rapid onset of the pharmacological effect is
(a) Intramuscular injection
(b) Intravenous injection
(c) Intradermal injection
(d) Peroral administration
(e) Subcutaneous injection
52. Acidic drugs mainly bind to plasma
52. Acidic drugs mainly bind to plasma
(a) Albumin
(b) á1 – acid glycoprotein
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
53. After peroral administration, drugs generally are absorbed best from the
53. After peroral administration, drugs generally are absorbed best from the
(a) Buccal cavity
(b) Stomach
(c) Duodenum
(d) Ileum
(e) Rectum
54. The passage of drug molecules from a region of high drug concentration to a region of low drug concentration is known as
54. The passage of drug molecules from a region of high drug concentration to a region of low drug concentration is known as
(a) Active transport
(b) Bioavailability
(c) Biopharmaceutics
(d) Simple diffusion
(e) Pinocytosis
55. What equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
55. What equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
(a) Fick’s law
(b) Henderson – Hasselbach equation
(c) Law of mass action
(d) Michaelis – Menten equation
(e) Noyes Whitney equation
56. Dose dumping is a problem in the formulation of
56. Dose dumping is a problem in the formulation of
(a) Compressed tablets
(b) Modified- release drug products
(c) Hard gelatin capsules
(d) Soft gelatin capsules
(e) Suppositories
57. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as a
(a) Controlled – release product
(b) Hard gelatin capsule
(c) Compressed tablet
(d) Solution
(e) Suspension
58. Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of
58. Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of
(a) Renal excretion rate
(b) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
(c) Active renal secretion
(d) Passive renal absorption
(e) Drug metabolism rate
59. The earliest evidence that a drug is stored in tissue is
59. The earliest evidence that a drug is stored in tissue is
(a) An increase in plasma protein binding
(b) A large apparent volume of distribution (VD)
(c) A decrease in the rate of formation of metabolites by the liver
(d) An increase in the number of side effects produced by the drug
(e) A decrease in the amount of free drug excreted in the urine
60. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent on the
60. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent on the
(a) Concentration of the drug at the receptor site
(b) Elimination half-life (t½ ) of the drug
(c) Onset time of the drug after oral administration
(d) Minimum toxic concentration (MTC) of the drug in plasma
(e) Minimum effective concentration (MEC) of the drug in the body
61. Drug that show nonlinear pharmacokinetics have which property?
61. Drug that show nonlinear pharmacokinetics have which property?
(a) A constant ratio of drug metabolites is formed as the administered dose increases
(b) The elimination half-life (t½ ) increases as the administered dose increases
(c) The area under the plasma drug concentration versus time curve (AUC) increases in direct proportion to an increase in the administered dose
(d) Both low and high doses follow first-order elimination kinetics
(e) The steady-state drug concentration increases in direct proportion to the dosing rate
62. The loading dose (DL ) of a drug is usually based on the
62. The loading dose (DL ) of a drug is usually based on the
(a) Total body clearance (ClT ) of the drug
(b) Percentage of drug bound to plasma proteins
(c) Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in the urine
(d) Apparent volume of distribution (VD) and desired drug concentration in plasma
(e) Area under the plasma drug concentration versus time curve (AUC)
63. The renal clearance of insulin is used as a measurement of
63. The renal clearance of insulin is used as a measurement of
(a) Effective renal blood flow
(b) Rate of renal drug excretion
(c) Intrinsic enzyme activity
(d) Active renal secretion
(e) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
64. All of the following statements about plasma protein binding of a drug are true except
64. All of the following statements about plasma protein binding of a drug are true except
(a) Displacement of a drug from plasma protein binding sites results in a transient increased volume of distribution (VD)
(b) Displacement of a drug from plasma protein binding sites makes more free drug available for glomerular filtration
(c) Displacement of a potent drug that is normally more than 95% bound may cause toxicity
(d) Albumin is the major protein involved in protein binding of drugs
(e) Drugs that are highly bound to plasma proteins generally have a greater VD compared with drugs that are highly bound to tissue proteins
65. _______ is expressed in both the intestinal epithelium and the kidney.
65. _______ is expressed in both the intestinal epithelium and the kidney.
(a) CYP2D6
(b) CYP1A1/2
(c) CYP3A4
(d) CYP2E1
66. The initial distribution of a drug into tissue is determined chiefly by the
66. The initial distribution of a drug into tissue is determined chiefly by the
(a) Rate of blood flow to tissue
(b) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
(c) Stomach emptying time
(d) Affinity of the drug for tissue
(e) Plasma protein binding of the drug
67. Which tissue has the greatest capacity to bio-transform drugs?
67. Which tissue has the greatest capacity to bio-transform drugs?
(a) Brain
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Lung
(e) Skin
68. The principle of superposition in designing multiple-dose regimens assumes that
68. The principle of superposition in designing multiple-dose regimens assumes that
(a) Each dose affects the next subsequent dose causing nonlinear elimination
(b) Each dose of drug is eliminated by zero-order elimination
(c) Steady-state plasma drug concentration are reached at approximately 10 half-lives
(d) Early doses of drug do not affect subsequent doses
(e) The fraction of drug absorbed is equal to the fraction of drug eliminated
69. Which equation is true for a zero-order reaction rate of drug ?
69. Which equation is true for a zero-order reaction rate of drug ?
(a) dA/dt = - k
(b) t½ = 0.693/k
(c) A = A0e -kt
70. Which of the following functional groups is most susceptible to hydrolysis ?
70. Which of the following functional groups is most susceptible to hydrolysis ?
(a) R – CO – R
(b) R – COOR
(c) R – O - R
(d) R – NH- CH3
(e) R – COOH
71. Monomer units of proteins are known as
71. Monomer units of proteins are known as
(a) Monosaccharides
(b) Prosthetic groups
(c) Amino acids
(d) Purines
(e) Nucleosides
72. Glucose is a carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolyzed into a simpler substance. It is best described as
72. Glucose is a carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolyzed into a simpler substance. It is best described as
(a) A sugar
(b) A monosaccharide
(c) A disaccharide
(d) A polysaccharide
(e) An oligosaccharide
73. All of the following carbohydrates are considered to be polysaccharides except
73. All of the following carbohydrates are considered to be polysaccharides except
(a) Heparin
(b) Starch
(c) Glycogen
(d) Maltose
(e) Cellulose
74. Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids ?
74. Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids ?
(a) Nucleotides
(b) Nucleosides
(c) Monosaccharides
(d) Purines
(e) Amino acids
75. Wh ich of the fo l low ing terms best describes a co-factor that is firmly bound to an apoenzyme?
75. Wh ich of the fo l low ing terms best describes a co-factor that is firmly bound to an apoenzyme?
(a) Holoenzyme
(b) Prosthetic group
(c) Coenzyme
(d) Transferase
(e) Heteropolysaccharide
76. Enzymes that uncouple peptide linkages are best classified as
76. Enzymes that uncouple peptide linkages are best classified as
(a) Hydrolases
(b) Ligases
(c) Oxidoreductases
(d) Transferases
(e) Isomaerases
77. The sugar that is inherent in the nucleic acids RNA and DNA is
77. The sugar that is inherent in the nucleic acids RNA and DNA is
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Ribose
(d) Digitoxose
(e) Maltose
78. N-oxidation will be involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except
78. N-oxidation will be involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except
(a) Dapsone
(b) Meperidine
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Chlorpheniramine
79. Which of the following statements describes plasmids? They
79. Which of the following statements describes plasmids? They
(a) Are single – stranded DNA molecules
(b) Carry optional gene(s)
(c) Carry genes essential for growth
(d) Are always found in linear form
80. Bacteria that grow at temperatures as high as 550C are known as
80. Bacteria that grow at temperatures as high as 550C are known as
(a) Psychrophiles
(b) Thermophiles
(c) Mesophiles
(d) Auxotrophs
81. Which of the following organisms can use only molecular oxygen as the final acceptor?
81. Which of the following organisms can use only molecular oxygen as the final acceptor?
(a) Obligate anaerobes
(b) Facultative anaerobes
(c) Obligate aerobes
(d) Strict anaerobes
82. A declining growth rate occurs during which of the following phases of bacterial cell growth?
82. A declining growth rate occurs during which of the following phases of bacterial cell growth?
(a) Lag phase
(b) Exponential phase
(c) Stationary phase
(d) Death phase
83. Which class of antibody has the longest serum half-life and opsonizes antigens for phagocytosis through two different pathways?
83. Which class of antibody has the longest serum half-life and opsonizes antigens for phagocytosis through two different pathways?
(a) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
(b) Immunoglobulin M(IgM)
(c) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
(d) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
84. Urticaria that appears rapidly after the ingestion of food usually indicates which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
84. Urticaria that appears rapidly after the ingestion of food usually indicates which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV
85. A patient receives long-term, high-dose therapy with a sulfonamide. After approximately 3 weeks of therapy, the patient has a low-grade fever, rash, and muscle and joint pain. Which type of hypersensitivity accounts for these symptoms?
85. A patient receives long-term, high-dose therapy with a sulfonamide. After approximately 3 weeks of therapy, the patient has a low-grade fever, rash, and muscle and joint pain. Which type of hypersensitivity accounts for these symptoms?
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV
86. CD4+T cells specifically recognize antigens in which form?
86. CD4+T cells specifically recognize antigens in which form?
(a) Bound to major histocompatibility (MHC) class I molecules on the surface of any body cell
(b) In free, soluble form in extracellular fluids
(c) Bound to MHC class II molecules on the surface of special antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
87. Which of the following statements concerning a drug receptor is true?
87. Which of the following statements concerning a drug receptor is true?
(a) It mediates the nonspecific action of volatile anesthetics
(b) Its expression is induced only by exogenously added drugs
(c) It can bind endogenous ligand to produce physiological activity
(d) It mediates the cathartic activity of magnesium citrate
(e) Down-regulation of receptor level can lead to sensitization of the target cell to the receptor agonist.
88. Which of the following acids has the highest degree of ionization in an aqueous solution?
88. Which of the following acids has the highest degree of ionization in an aqueous solution?
(a) Aspirin pKa = 3.5
(b) Indomethacin pKa = 4.5
(c) Warfarin pKa = 5.1
(d) Ibuprofen pKa = 5.2
(e) Phenobarbital pKa = 7.4
89. Which of the following salts forms an aqueous solution that is alkaline to litmus?
89. Which of the following salts forms an aqueous solution that is alkaline to litmus?
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Benzalkonium chloride
(c) Meperidine hydrochloride
(d) Cefazolin sodium
(e) Chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride
90. Hydrolysis reaction are involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except
90. Hydrolysis reaction are involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except
(a) Procaine
(b) Diazepam
(c) Aspirin
(d) Lidocaine
91. F lurazepam has pKa of 8.2. What percentage of flurazepam will be ionized at a urine pH of 5.2?
91. F lurazepam has pKa of 8.2. What percentage of flurazepam will be ionized at a urine pH of 5.2?
(a) 0.1%
(b) 1%
(c) 50%
(d) 99%
(e) 99.9%
92. Precipitation may occur when mixing aqueous solutions of meperidine hydrochloride with which of the following solutions?
92. Precipitation may occur when mixing aqueous solutions of meperidine hydrochloride with which of the following solutions?
(a) Sodium bicarbonate injection
(b) Atropine sulfate injection
(c) Sodium chloride injection
93. The excretion of a weakly acidic drug generally is more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine. This process occurs because
93. The excretion of a weakly acidic drug generally is more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine. This process occurs because
(a) A weak acid in alkaline media will exist primarily in its ionized form, which cannot be reabsorbed easily
(b) A weak acid in alkaline media will exist in its lipophilic form, which cannot be reabsorbed easily
(c) All drugs are excreted more rapidly in an alkaline urine.
94. Wh ich of the fo l low ing drugs is considered to be the agent of choice for anaphylactic reactions?
94. Wh ich of the fo l low ing drugs is considered to be the agent of choice for anaphylactic reactions?
(a) Edrophonium
(b) Ipratropium
(c) Ambenonium
(d) Propantheline
(e) Homatropine
95. Which of the following drugs is considred to be the agent of choice for anaphylactic reactions?
95. Which of the following drugs is considred to be the agent of choice for anaphylactic reactions?
(a) Clonidine
(b) Isoproterenol
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Phenylephrine
(e) Terbutaline
96. Which of the following emissions from the decay of radionuclides is most commonly used in nuclear medicine imaging?
96. Which of the following emissions from the decay of radionuclides is most commonly used in nuclear medicine imaging?
(a) X-ray
(b) Beta
(c) Alpha
(d) Gamma
(e) Positron
97. Which of the following radionuclides is mot commonly used in nuclear pharmacy practice?
97. Which of the following radionuclides is mot commonly used in nuclear pharmacy practice?
(a) 67GA
(b) 201TI
(c) 99mTC
(d) 123I
(e) 133Xe
98. Which of the following radionuclides is generator produced?
98. Which of the following radionuclides is generator produced?
(a) 99mTC
(b) 201TI
(c) 67GA
(d) 133Xe
(e) 123I
99. Abrasives, ingredients in dentifrices, are noted for which of the following actions?
99. Abrasives, ingredients in dentifrices, are noted for which of the following actions?
(a) Providing flavor
(b) Cleansing via a foaming detergent action
(c) Removing plaque and debris
(d) Preventing dental caries
(e) Adding thickness to the product
100. The appropriate pH range for ophthalmic products is
100. The appropriate pH range for ophthalmic products is
(a) 2.0 – 3.0
(b) 4.0 – 6.0
(c) 6.0 – 8.0
(d) 8.0 – 10.0
ANSWERS
51. b
52. b
53. c
54. d
55. d
56. b
57. d
58. b
59. b
60. a
61. b
62. d
63. e
64. e
65. c
66. a
67. c
68. d
69. a
70. b
71. c
72. b
73. d
74. a
75. b
76. a
77. c
78. c
79. b
80. b
81. c
82. d
83. a
84. a
85. c
86. c
87. c
88. a
89. d
90. b
91. e
92. a
93. a
94. b
95. c
96. d
97. c
98. a
99. c
100. c
65. c CYP3A4 is involved in the metabolism of majority of drugs and is also expressed extrahepatically. In fact, poor bioavailability of many drugs is attributed to the drug metabolism by CYP3A4 in gastrointestinal tract.
78. c N-oxidation is involved in the metabolism of dapsone, meperidine and chloramphenicol. Metabolism of phenytoin involves oxidative Ndealkylation.
0 Comments